PMI-001 Q&A – Section 4: Time Management (151-160)

Section 4: Time Management

QUESTION 151
All of the following relate to controlling the schedule EXCEPT:
A. Value analysis.
B. Crashing.
C. Float.
D. Mandatory dependencies.
Answer: A

Explanation:
Crashing (choice B) changes the resources on the project. Knowing where the project has float (choice C) and the mandatory dependencies (choice D) helps determine where to move resources and thus decrease schedule. Value analysis relates to cost.
Source: PMP® Exam Prep Page: 232

QUESTION 152
Resource requirements are determined:
A. Before the project schedule and after the network diagram.
B. After the project schedule and project scope statement.
C. After the project schedule and WBS.
D. Before the project scope statement and the network diagram.
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is another question asking about the process of project management.
Source: PMP® Exam Prep Page: 186

QUESTION 153
Determining the physical resources, quantities of each, and when they would be used is the process of:
A. Resource selection.
B. Estimate Activity Resources.
C. Resource Leveling.
D. Define Activities.
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question tests your knowledge of project management terms. Resource selection (choice A) sounds like a good choice based on the wording of the question, however it is a made-up term. Many people are surprised to learn that there are made-up terms on the exam. These are easy to spot if you have had good basic training in project management before you take the exam. The trick here is to remember that if you have had good project management training and you see a word on the exam that you have never seen before, chances are it is not the correct answer.
Source: PMP® Exam Prep Page: 186

QUESTION 154
Which of the following is a benefit of an analogous project estimate?
A. The estimate will be closer to what the work will actually require.
B. It is based on a detailed understanding of what the work requires.
C. It gives the project team an understanding of management’s expectations.
D. It helps the project manager determine if the project will meet the schedule.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Remember for the exam that analogous estimates are considered to be top-down, high-level estimates even though a high-level or even a definitive estimate can be estimated analogously. Therefore, choices A and B cannot be correct. The project manager needs more than an analogous (high-level) estimate to determine whether or not the project will meet the schedule (choice D). It is a benefit to know management’s expectations of how much the project will cost so that any differences between the analogous estimate and the detailed bottom-up estimate can be reconciled in the planning processes. The best choice is C.
Source: PMP® Exam Prep Page: 190

QUESTION 155
All of the following are true statements about parametric estimating EXCEPT:
A. The model is scalable.
B. Estimates are based on input from the team.
C. The parameters used in the model are readily quantifiable.
D. Historical information is used in the model.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Parametric estimating does not make use of estimates from the team.
Source: PMP® Exam Prep Page: 190

QUESTION 156
You are the project manager on a project that has a total project float of negative 20. What should you do FIRST?
A. Use less experienced team members.
B. Request an extension of the project due date.
C. Acquire more resources for critical path activities.
D. Fast track the project if overall project risk is already too high.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Negative float indicates you are behind. Although choice B is technically correct, it is not the best answer because it essentially means, “Do nothing and ask for more time.” Fast tracking an already risky project (choice D) only puts the project in worse shape.
Source: PMP® Exam Prep Page: 215

QUESTION 157
A project is seriously delayed. Earned value analysis shows that the project needs to be completed 10 percent faster than the work has been going. To get the project back on track, management wants to add 10 people to an activity currently assigned to one person. The project manager disagrees, noting that such an increase will not produce an increase in speed. This is an example of:
A. The law of diminishing returns.
B. Fast tracking.
C. Earned value.
D. Life cycle costing.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Don’t be confused by the early discussion of schedule compression. The question is asking whether adding resources provides a constant increase in work effort. The law of diminishing returns says that for each additional resource, you will NOT realize the same increase in benefit that you realized from the previous resource.
Source: PMP® Exam Prep Page: 110

QUESTION 158
A schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.76 means:
A. You are over budget.
B. You are ahead of schedule.
C. You are only progressing at 76 percent of the rate originally planned.
D. You are only progressing at 24 percent of the rate originally planned.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Earned value questions ask for a calculation or an interpretation of the results. See the tricks under this topic in the book PMP® Exam Prep.
Source: PMP® Exam Prep Page: 241

QUESTION 159
If planned value (PV) is US $29,000, actual cost (AC) is US $32,000, and earned value (EV) is US $30,000, what is the schedule variance (SV)?
A. 0.938
B. $1,000
C. 1.034
D. ($2,000)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Schedule variance is calculated by EV – PV or $30,000 – $29,000 = $1,000
Source: PMP® Exam Prep Page: 241

QUESTION 160
During the Define Activities process, a team member begins to discuss activities that the project manager has never heard discussed. What should the project manager do?
A. Make sure he has a good understanding of the activities and include the activities in the activity list.
B. Ask the team member to explain why such an activity would be needed to complete the work package.
C. Make sure the entire team agrees that the activities should be done.
D. Evaluate the impact of the change.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Choice A is reactive, making it not the best. Choice C cannot be best because it is generally the responsibility of the person completing the work package to define the activities needed. Choice D cannot be best because this is not necessarily a change, it is a further breakdown of the project work. The project manager’s role is to make sure all work is needed and that there is no gold plating. This is what choice B says, making it the best choice.
Source: PMP® Exam Prep Page: 182

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