PMI-001 Q&A – Section 4: Time Management (51-60)

Section 4: Time Management

QUESTION 51
A project manager has increased project costs by US $100,000, but completed the project four weeks earlier than planned. What activity is BEST described here?
A. Resource leveling
B. Schedule compression
C. Critical chain
D. Adjusting leads and lags
Answer: B

Explanation:
Schedule compression means shortening the duration of the project.
Source: PMP® Exam Prep Page: 205

QUESTION 52
All of the following are inputs to the Develop Schedule process EXCEPT:
A. Schedule baseline.
B. Network diagram.
C. Organizational process assets.
D. Resource requirements.
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question is really saying, “Which of the following do you not need before you develop your final schedule?” The schedule baseline is an output of the Develop Schedule process.
Source: PMP® Exam Prep Page: 195

QUESTION 53
All of the following are inputs to the Develop Schedule process EXCEPT:
A. Vacation schedules.
B. Need for delay between ordering equipment and installing it.
C. Assumption that the software will be released without any damaging bugs.
D. Planned start and finish dates for each activity.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Choice D is an output of the Develop Schedule process.
Source: PMP® Exam Prep Page: 195

QUESTION 54
Which of the following is the MOST likely outcome if you decide to crash the project?
A. Increased cost
B. Longer schedule
C. Doing more activities in parallel
D. Added schedule risk
Answer: A
Explanation:
Crashing leads to a shorter schedule, not a longer one (choice B). Doing more activities in parallel (choice C) relates to fast tracking. Though crashing includes efforts to minimize cost impact, it can result in increased cost. However, this does not mean there will be added schedule risk (choice D).
Source: PMP® Exam Prep Page: 206

QUESTION 55
Fast tracking the project usually:
A. Decreases project duration.
B. Decreases project costs.
C. Decreases the amount of management oversight needed.
D. Decreases the number of resources used.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Fast tracking means making more activities happen at the same time. Therefore, the result is a decrease in project duration.
Source: PMP® Exam Prep Page: 205

QUESTION 56
Why is reverse resource allocation scheduling done?
A. To ensure activities can be completed as scheduled
B. To accommodate a finite and critical project resource
C. To delay resource allocation
D. To allocate the main body of resources to the project
Answer: B
Explanation:
Have you ever seen this term before? Let’s assume you have not, and that you are trying to guess the answer. Choice A deals with completion, rather than resources. If you were performing resource allocation, why would you be delaying it (choice C)? Wouldn’t choice D mean resource allocation? Therefore, it is not likely to be “reverse” resource allocation. The correct answer is choice B.
Source: PMBOK® Guide Page: 147

QUESTION 57
When the project manager completes the detailed project schedule, it would be MOST important to get it approved by the:
A. Project sponsor.
B. Team.
C. Functional managers.
D. Customer.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Assuming the project manager is meeting the project objectives and constraints, sponsor approval of a detailed schedule (choice A) is not as critical as that of functional managers. The customer (choice D) does not need to approve the detailed project schedule, just the end date and any milestones they might impose.
The team (choice B) would at least have provided their estimates. Getting functional managers to approve will also, indirectly get team members’ approval. Remember that the book PMP® Exam Prep says to assume a matrix organization. If functional managers knew what each of their people were doing, the timeframe, and when their activities were on the critical path, resource problems would not be as frequent. Approval of the schedule by functional managers provides the most benefits.
Source: PMP® Exam Prep Page: 195

QUESTION 58
What kind of a diagram is represented by the information in the chart?
image
A. Activity-on-arrow
B. Precedence diagramming
C. Start-to-start
D. Activity-on-node
Answer: A
Explanation:
It is an activity-on-arrow diagram because the time estimates are on the arrow. Did you jump ahead and start to draw a network diagram to answer this question? Why? Be careful to not anticipate the question on the actual exam. You will not have time to waste.
Source: PMP® Exam Prep Page: 148

QUESTION 59
During the Develop Schedule process, which of the following would BEST provide the basis for the MOST likely activity duration estimate?
A. Labor productivity rates published by a professional association
B. A consultant’s estimate of the overall labor man-hours required
C. The initial estimate used to budget the project
D. The schedule for a similar project at the same facility completed two years earlier
Answer: D
Explanation:
This recent historical data (part of organizational process assets) provides the most unbiased and least subjective basis for the development of the initial project schedule.
Source: PMBOK® Guide Page: 152

QUESTION 60
The WBS, estimates for each work package, and the network diagram are completed. Which of the following would be the NEXT thing for the project manager to do?
A. Sequence the activities.
B. Verify that they have the correct scope.
C. Create a preliminary schedule and get the team’s approval.
D. Complete risk management.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Choice A is the same thing as create a network diagram. Choice B is another name for Verify Scope, which is done during the monitoring and controlling process group, not during project planning. Since a schedule is an input to risk management, choice D comes after choice C and so it is not the “next thing to do.” The only remaining choice is C.
Source: PMP® Exam Prep Page: 195

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